Orthopedic Surgery MOC Sample Questions

The correct answer is C. Arthroscopic Bankart repair

Explanation: The above clinical scenario and imaging are indicative of a traumatic dislocation with resultant instability of the glenohumeral joint secondary to formation of a Bankart lesion. A Bankart lesion may involve only the labrum or the labrum plus a bony portion of the glenoid. Labral-only lesions are most commonly repaired via an arthroscopic stabilization procedure where the labrum is fixed back to the glenoid. Bony Bankart lesions may be addressed with open reduction and internal fixation with concomitant labral stabilization.

Not Shoulder immobilizer and serial radiographs. The patient has a Bankart lesion in the setting of multiple dislocations and requires surgical stabilization.

Not Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair. The images demonstrate a Bankart lesion. There is no evidence of a rotator cuff tear.

Not Biceps tenodesis. The patient has suffered a traumatic dislocation with resultant formation of a Bankart lesion. Repair of the Bankart is indicated, not a biceps tenodesis.