Neurology Shelf Exam Sample Question 1
A 61-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hyperlipidemia, and hypertension, presents with left hemiparesis without speech problems. The symptoms resolve while you evaluate the patient. Which of the following is correct?
- AThe patient should be discharged and no further testing is necessary
- BThe patient can be discharged with follow up in 3 months and treatment change is not necessary
- CObservation before thrombolysis is indicated prior to symptom resolution, to determine if the patient has a TIA rather than a stroke
- DMRI is not required since the symptoms have resolved
- EThe risk of stroke is highest in the period immediately following and soon after a TIA
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600 challenging Neurology Shelf Board Review Questions targeted for use during clerkship rotations. The questions have been specifically adapted for the Medical School Student Level. The questions have been hand-selected from multiple leading textbooks from Wolters Kluwer.
- 600 Neurology Shelf Board Review Questions & Answers
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