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Neurology Shelf Exam Sample Question 1

A 61-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hyperlipidemia, and hypertension, presents with left hemiparesis without speech problems. The symptoms resolve while you evaluate the patient. Which of the following is correct?


  • AThe patient should be discharged and no further testing is necessary
  • BThe patient can be discharged with follow up in 3 months and treatment change is not necessary
  • CObservation before thrombolysis is indicated prior to symptom resolution, to determine if the patient has a TIA rather than a stroke
  • DMRI is not required since the symptoms have resolved
  • EThe risk of stroke is highest in the period immediately following and soon after a TIA


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Neurology Shelf Board Review Questions

600 challenging Neurology Shelf Board Review Questions targeted for use during clerkship rotations. The questions have been specifically adapted for the Medical School Student Level. The questions have been hand-selected from multiple leading textbooks from Wolters Kluwer.


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