Question 1: A 61-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hyperlipidemia and hypertension, presents with left hemiparesis without speech problems. The symptoms resolve while you evaluate the patient. Which of the following is correct?
The patient should be discharged and no further testing is necessary
The patient can be discharged with follow up in 3 months and treatment change is not necessary
Observation before thrombolysis is indicated prior to symptom resolution, to determine if the patient has a TIA rather than a stroke
MRI is not required since the symptoms have resolved
The risk of stroke is highest in the period immediately following and soon after a TIA
Reference: Easton JD, Saver JL, Albers GW, et al. Definition and evaluation of transient ischemic attack. Stroke. 2009;40: 2276–2293.
600 challenging Neurology Shelf Board Review Questions targeted for use during clerkship rotations. The questions have been specifically adapted for the Medical School Student Level. The questions have been hand selected from multiple leading textbooks from Wolters Kluwer.
600 Neurology Shelf Board Review Questions & Answers
Timed Neurology Practice Exams
Flag Questions for Later
Individualized Content Recommendations
Developed by top faculty and practicing physicians, BoardVitals helps tens of thousands of doctors prepare for board certification/recertification exams and complete their CME requirements. BoardVitals is trusted by more than 400 leading medical institutions including Harvard, Yale, Mt. Sinai, and Duke.
“This Q-bank is awesome. When I used this bank for the first time, I said to myself 'oh wow' because I was missing little bits and pieces which I filled in with BoardVitals. These questions are hard but very similar to questions on NBME exams. I would strongly recommend BoardVitals for everyone who is studying for Step 1, 2, 3 and shelf exams. I used this bank for Step 1, and right now I'm using it for Step 2 and for my upcoming Internal Medicine shelf exam.” - Nadia Badar, Medical Student